CLAT 2015 Question Paper with Answers (DOWNLOAD)

CLAT 2015 Paper: Original Questions with Answers

Section A: English [CLAT 2015 paper]

Direction for the question: Answer the question based on the following information. Indicate which of the statement given with that particular question consistent with the description of unreasonable man in the passage below.

Unreasonableness is tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in your when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill. He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted, but which cannot be politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration he stirs up dissension between the two parties, who we really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man.

1. The unreasonable man tends to

(a) Entertain women

(b) be a successful arbitrator when dissenting parties are anxious to agree

(c) be helpful when solicited

(d) tell a long story to people who have heard it many times before

2. The unreasonable man tends to

(a) bring a higher bidder to a salesman who has just closed a deal

(b) disclose confidential information to other

(c) sing the praise of the bride when the goes to a weeding

(d) sleep late and rise early

Direction for the question: Fill up the blanks, numbered [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] and [6] in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

“Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns.” with that [1] statement. soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. “I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3], the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just now much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4], automobiles may be [5] and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled.”

3. Fill up the blank [5]

(a) Smashed (b) Seized (c) Dismantled (d) Frozen

4. Fill up the blank [1]

(a) Devious (b) Blunt (c) Tactful (d) Pretentious

5. Fill up the blank [2]

(a) Interest (b) Taxes (c) Principal (d) Returns

6. Fill up the blank

(a) Purchaser (b) Victim (c) Investor (d) Offender

7. Fill up the blank [3]

(a) Sanctions (b) Refunds (c) Fees (d) Fines

8. Fill up the blank [4]

(a) Closed (b) Detached (c) Attached (d) Impounded

Direction for the question: For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate the given context.

9. OBVIATE: The new transit system may obviate the need for the use of personal cars.

(a) Prevent (b) Forestall (c) Preclude (d) Bolster

10. SPECIOUS: A specious argument is not simply a false on but one that has the ring of truth.

(a) Deceitful (b) Fallacious (c) Credible (d) Deceptive

11. PARSIMONIOUS: The evidence was constructed from every parsimonious scraps of information.

(a) Prevalent (b) Penurious (c) Thrifty (d) Altruistic

12. FACETIOUS: When I suggested that war is a method of controlling population, my father remarked that I was being facetious.

(a) Jovian (b) Jovial (c) Jocular (d) Joking

13. DISUSE: Some words fall into disuse as technology makes object to obsolete.

(a) Prevalent (b) Discarded (c) Obliterated (d) Unfashionable.

Direction for the question: Choose the option closest in meaning to the Capitalized word.


(a) To sweeten (b) smear (c) irritate (d) Falsify


(a) Imposing (b) Unpretentious (c) boring (d) lanky

16. Spry:

(a) Doubtful (b) nimble (c) prognosticate (d) leave

17.  A) I want to do an MBA before going into business. (B) Priti’s husband has been on active service for three months. (C) The horse suddenly broke into a buckle. (D) I need to file an insurance claim.

(a) B and A (b) C Only (c) B and C (d) B, C and D

18. A) The letter was posted to the address. (B) Your stand is beyond all reasons. (C) How do you deal with friend who does not listen to a reason? (D) My wife runs profitable business in this suburb.

(a) A only (b) D only (c) B and C (d) C and D

19. A) I must run fast to catch up with him. (B) The newly released book in enjoying a popular run. (C) The doctor is on a hospital round. (D) You cannot run over him like that.

(a) A and C (b) D only (c) A, C and D (d) A only

Direction for the question: Four alternative summaries are given the text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

20. Physically, inertia is a feeling that you just can’t move mentally, it is a sluggish mind. Even you try to be sensitive, if your mind is sluggish; you just do not feel anything intensely. You may even see a tragedy enacted in front of your eyes and nit be able to respond meaningfully. You may see one person exploiting another, one group persecuting another, and not be able to get angry, your energy is frozen. You are not deliberately refusing to act; you don’t just have the capacity.

A. Inertia makes your body and mind sluggish. They become insensitive to tragedies, exploitation, and persecution because it freezes your energy and decapitates it.

B. When you have inertia you do not act although your see one person exploiting another or on group persecuting another. You do not get angry because you are incapable.

C. Inertia is of two types- physical and mental. Physical inertia restricts bodily movements. Mental inertia prevents response to events enacted in front or your eyes.

D. Physical inertia stops your body from moving: mental inertia freezes your energy and stops your mind for responding meaningfully to events, even tragedies, in front to you.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

21. Some decisions will be fairly obvious- “no brainers”. Your bank account is tow, but you have two week vacation coming up and you want to get away to some place warm to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws’ offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel I ready to move forward in your career. Will your step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course.

A. some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relative’s offer of free holiday accommodation. Or, step in for your boss when she is away.

B. Some decisions are no-brainers. Your need think when making them. Examples are condo offers from in-laws and job offers from bosses when your bank account is low or boss in away.

C. Easy decisions are called “no-brainers” because they do not require any cerebral activity. Examples such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives.

D. Accepting and offer from in-laws when you are short on found and want a holiday is a no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the boss’s job when she is away.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Direction for the question: In the question, a pair of words or phrases follows a related pair of words or phrases: Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair.

22. Dulcet: Raucous

(a) Sweet: Song (b) Crazy: Insane (c) Palliative: Exacerbating (d) Theory: Practical

23. Malapropism: Words

(a) Anachronism: Time

(b) Ellipsis: Sentence

(c) Jinjanthropism: Apes

(d) Catechism: Religion

24. Peel: Peal

(a) Coat: Rind (b) Laugh: Bell (c) Rain: Reign (d) Brain: cranium

Direction for the question: In view of the passage given below: Choose the best option for question.
When talks come to how India has done for itself in 50 years of independence, the world has nothing but praise for our success in remaining a democracy. On other front, the applause is less loud. In absolute terms, India has not done too badly, Of course, life expectancy has increased. So has literacy. Industry, which was barely a fledging, has grown tremendously, As far as agriculture is concerned, India has been transformed from a country perpetually on the edge of starvation into a success story held up for others to emulate. But these are competitive times when change is rapid, and to walk slowly when rest of the world is running is almost as bad standing still on walking backwards.

Compare with large chunks of what was then the developing world South Korea, Singapore, Malaysia, Thailand, Indonesia, China and what was till lately a separate Hong Kong- India has fared abysmally, It began with a far better infrastructure than most of these countries had. It suffered hardly or not at all during the Second World War It ha advantages like a English speaking elite, quality scientific manpower (including a Novel laureate and others who could be ranked according to their global competitiveness, it is tiny Singapore that figures at the top. Hong Kong is an export powerhouse. So is Taiwan. If a symbol were needed of, how far we have fallen back, note that while Korean Ceils are sold in India, no one is South Korea is rushing to by an Indian car. The reasons list themselves, Top most in economic isolationism.

The government discouraged imports and encouraged self-sufficiency. Whatever the aim was, the result was the creation of totally inefficient industry that failed to keep pace with global trends and, therefore, became absolutely uncompetitive. Only when the trade gates were opened a little did this become apparent. The years since then have been spent in merely trying to catch up. That the government actually sheltered it’s the years since then have been spent in merely trying to catch up. That the government actually sheltered its industrialists from foreign competition is a little strange. For in all other respects, it operated under the conviction that businessman were little more than crooks how were to be prevented from entering the most important area of the economy, how were to be hamstrung in as many ways as possible, how were to be tolerated in the same way as an in excisable wart. The high expropriator rates taxation, the licensing laws, the reservation of whole swathes of industry for the public sector, and the granting of monopolies to the public sector firms were the principle manifestations of this attitude. The government forget that before wealth could be distributed, it had to be created.

The government forgot that it itself could not create, but only squander wealth, Some of the manifestations of the old attitude have changed, Tax rates have fallen, Licensing has been al but abolished. And the gates of global trade have been open wide. But most of these changes were first by circumstances partly by the funds of support the public sector, leave alone expand it. Weather the attitude of the government itself, of that of more than handful of ministers, has changed, is open of question. In many other ways, however, the government has not changed one with. Business till has to negotiable a welter of negotiations. Transparency is still a longer way off. And there is no exit policy. In defending the existing policy, politicians betray and inability to see beyond their noses. A no-exit policy for labour is equivalent to a no-entry policy for new business. If one industry is not allowed to retrench labour, other industries will think a hundred times before employing new labour. In other ways, the government hurts industries.

Public sector monopolies like the department of telecommunications and Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. make it possible for Indian business to operator only at cost several times that off their counterparts abroad. The infrastructure is in a shambles partly because it is unable to formulate a sufficiently remunerative policy for private business, and partly because it does not have the stomach to change market rates for services. After a burst of activity in the early nineties, the government id dragging its feet. At the rate it is going, it will be another fifty years before the government realizes that a pro-business policy is the best pro-people policy. By then of course, the world would have moved even father ahead.

25. According to the writer……

(a) India’s politicians are their vision of the country’s requirements.

(b) India’s politicians are busy lining their pockets.

(c) India’s politicians are not conversant with the needs of the present scenario.

(d) All of the above.

26. The example of the Korean Cielo has been presented to highlight…..

(a) India’s lack of stature in the international market.

(b) India’s poor performance in the international market.

(c) India’s lack of creditability in the international market.

(d) India’s disrepute in the international market.

27. One of the factors of the government’s projectionist policy was…..

(a) Encouragement of imports.

(b) Discouragement of imports.

(c) Encouragement of exports.

(d) Discouragement of exports.

28. The write ends the passage on a note of…..

(a) Cautious optimism (b) Pessimism (c) Optimism (d) Pragmatism

29. The writer is surprised at the government’s attitude towards its industrialists because….

(a) The government did not need to protect its industrialists.

(b) the issue of competition was not-existent.

(c) the government looked upon its industrialist as crooks.

(d) the attitude was a conundrum.

30. According to the writer India should have performed better thant the other Asian nations because…..

(a) it had adequate infrastructure

(b) it had better infrastructure

(c) it had better politicians who could take the required decisions.

(d) All of the above

31. India was in better condition than the other Asian nations because…

(a) it did not face the ravages of the Second World War.

(b) it had an English speaking populace and good business.

(c) it had enough wealth through its exports.

(d) Both (a) and (b) above.

32. The writer’s attitude towards the governments is…..

(a) critical (b) ironical (c) sarcastic (d) dersive

33. The government was compelled to open the economy due to….

(a) pressure from international market.

(b) pressure from domestic market.

(c) foreign change bankruptcy and paucity of funds with the government.

(d) All of the above

34. The major reason for India’s poor performance is…..

(a) economic isolationism

(b) economic mismanagement

(c) inefficient industry

(d) All of these

35. Regrettably [A]/ regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation. The critics censored [A]/censured [B] the new movie because of its social unacceptability.

He was besides [A]/beside [B] himself with range when I told him what I had done.

Anita had beautiful broach [A]/brooch [B]on the lapel of her jacket.

He has the same capacity as an adult to consent [A]/assent [B] to surgical treatment.


36. The further [A]/farther [B] he pushed himself, the more disillusioned he grew.

For the crowed it was more of a historical [A]/historic [B]event; for their leader it was just another day.

The old has healthy distrust [A]mistrust [B] for all new technology.

The film is based on a worthy [A]/true [B] story.

She coughed discreetly [A]/discretely [B] to announce her presence.

(a) BABAB (b) ABBBA (c) BAABA (d) BBAA

37. The prisoner’s interment [A]/interment [B] came to an end with his early release.

She manages to bite back the ironic [A]/caustic [B] retort on the tip of her tongue.

Jeans that flair [A]/flare [B] at the bottom are in fashion these days.

The heard the bells peeling [A]/pealing [B] far the wide.

The students baited [A]/bated [B] the instructor with irrelevant questions.


Direction for the questions: In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.

38. The Romanians may be restive under Soviet direction but they are tied to Moscow by Ideological and military links.

(a) they are close to Moscow from ideological and military perspective.

(b) they are preparing for a greater revolution.

(c) secretly they rather enjoy the prestige of being protected by the mighty soviets.

(d) there is nothing they can do about it.

39. This government has given subsidies to the Navratnas but there is no telling whether the subsequent one will do.

(a) whether the subsequent government will do so

(b) if the government to follow will accept the policy

(c) if the government to follow will adhere to the policy

(d) no telling whether the subsequent one will do so

40. The management can still hire freely but cannot scold freely

(a) cannot scold at will

(b) cannot give umbrage

(c) cannot take decision to scold

(d) cannot scold willfully

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Section B: General Knowledge and Current Affairs [CLAT 2015 paper]

41. Recently, which country became the first member country to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to submit its action plan to intended nationally Determined Contribution (INDC)?

(a) India (b) Switzerland (c) Australia (d) Singapore

42. Who among the following is India’s first chief of Cyber Security?

(a) B.J. Srinath (b) GulshanRai (c) A.S. Kamble (d) Amardeep S. Chawla

43. Project Varsha, India’s new naval base under construction is near which of the following cities?

(a) Kochi (b) Karwar (c) Visakhapatnam (d) Chennai

44. Which of the following is Direct Tax?

(a) Excise Duty (b) Sales Tax (c) Income Tax (d) None of the above

45. Who among the following 18th century Indian rulers has been called ‘Plato of his tribe?

(a) Sawai Jai Singh (b) Badam Singh (c) Suraj Mal (d) Guru Govind Singh

46. Which one of the following Railway zones and te corresponding Head quarter pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) North Eastern Railway. Gorakhpur

(b) South Eastern Railway. Bhabneswar

(c) Eastern Railway. Kolkata

(d) South East Central Railway: Bilaspur

47. A Snickometer is associated with which sports?

(a) Tennis (b) Cricket (c) Hockey (d) Football

48. Young Indian shutter K. Srikanth on 15 March 2015 won which of the following major badminton championship?

(a) China Grand Prix Gold

(b) Australian Prix Gold

(c) Swiss Grand Prix Gold

(d) Indonesian Grand Prix Gold

49. IRCTC has recently launched a new service called ‘Rupay Prepaid Cards’ which will enable passengers to book their tickets, do shopping and pay services bills online. This service was launched in collaborate on with which bank?

(a) Union Bank of India

(b) State Bank of India

(c) ICICI Bank

(d) BharatiyaMahila Bank

50. President Pranab Mukherjee on 6 January 2015 singed the ordinance to amend Citizenship Act, 1955. Which of the statements in this regards is/ are right?

I. The ordinance exempts persons of Indian Origin (PIO) from appearing before the local police station on every visit.

II. It replace the clause that say foreigners marrying Indians Must continuously stay in the country for a period of six month before they get and Indian citizenship.

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

51. Name the Indian Industrialist on whose 175th birth anniversary, Union government launched the commemorative stamp on 6 January 2015?

(a) G D Birla

(b) T.V. Sundaram Lyengar

(c) Kasturbhai Lalbhai

(d) Jamsed Ji Nusserwanji Tata

52. Who among the following was the author of Rajatarangini, commonly regarded as the first genunine history of India written by an Indian?

(a) Banbhatta (b) Ravikirti (c) Pushpananda (d) Kalhana

53. Which is the single policy rate to unambiguously singal the stance of monetary policy as recently recommended by RBI?

(a) PLR (b) Repo (c) Bank (d) CLR

54. Which one of the following is essentially a solo dance nowadays performed in group as well?

(a) Kuchipudi (b) Kathak (c) Manipuri (d) Mohiniattam

55. Which among the following is the world’s largest e-commerce company?

(a) Amazon (b) Ebay (c) Alibaba (d) Flipkart

56. Name the renowned Indian ecologist who has been chosen for the prestigious 2015 Tyler prize of Environment Achievement on 23 March 2015?

(a) MS Swaminathan

(b) Kasthuri Rangan

(c) Jayaram Ramesh

(d) Madhav Gadgil

57. Name the golfer who won the Indian open title on 22 February 2015.

(a) SSP Chowrasia

(b) Anirban Lahiri

(c) Siddikur Rahman

(d) Daniel Chopra

58. Prime Minister Modi has launched the “Give it Up” campaign for voluntarily giving up…

(a) Use of tobacco Products

(b) LPG subsidy

(c) Use of incandescent bulbs

(d) Use of plastics

59. Attukal Pongal festival, which is figured is Guinness book of world records is celebrated in…….

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Telangana (d) Goa

60. Which of the following is the oldest share market in India?

(a) Bombay (b) Madras (c) Calcutta (d) Delhi

61. The National Industrial Corridor (NIC) that was proposed to be established in the Union Budget of 2014-15, will have its headquarters at which city?

(a) Pune (b) Bhubaneshwar (c) Bangalore (d) Hyberabad

62. What is the name given to the dedicated TV channel for farmers that was announced in the Union Budget for 2014-15 and Rs. 100 crore was set aside for its establishment?

(a) Kisan (b) Farmers Show (c) Krishi Channel (d) None of the above

63. Which South East Asian country has recently banned surrogacy service to end its flourishing rent a-womb industry?

(a) Singapore (b) Laos (c) Thailand (d) Vietnam

64. Which of the following Acts formally introduced the principle of election for the first time?

(a) The Indian Councils Act, 1909

(b) Government of India Act, 1919

(c) The Government of India Act, 1935

(d) India’s Independence Act, 1947

65. Greece and Turkey are working to resolve their dispute over sovereignty and related rights in the area of which sea?

(a) Black Sea (b) Sea of Marma (c) Aegean Sea (d) Mediterranean Sea

66. The name of new Andhra Pradesh Capita is likely to be…..

(a) Amaravathi (b) Badrachala (c) Krishna Nagar (d) Varshavathi

67. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly marched?

(a) Kunal Bahal & Rohit Bansal-Snapdeal

(b) Sachin Bansal & Binny Bansal-Red Bus

(c) Deepinder Goyal & Pankaj Chadda-Zomato

(d) Bhavish Aggarwal & Ankit Bhati-Ola Cab

68. Which city has become India’s first fully Wi-fi enabled metro city on 5 February 2015?

(a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata (c) Chennai (d) Delhi

69. The recently announced Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana aims to boost……?

(a) Organic Farming

(b) Drip Irrigation

(c) Horticulture Crops

(d) Vegetable Production

70. What is the correct sequence of the following movement in chronological order?

1. Civil Disobedience Movement 2. Khilafat Movement 3. Home Rule Movement 4. Quit India Movement

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 2, 4, 1, 3

71. The “Ease of doing Business Index” is prepared and published by……

(a) World Trade Organization

(b) World Bank Group

(c) United Nations

(d) European Union

72. Which committee was constituted by RBI to review governance of boards in india?

(a) P J Nayak Committee

(b) H R Khan Committee

(c) Harsh Vardhan Committee

(d) K Subramaniam Committee

73. Recently in which country did Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate the first of the eight Coastal Surveillance Radar System (CSRS) being set up by India?

(a) Mauritius (b) Maladives (c) Sri Lanka (d) Seychelles

74. The “Friends for life” _ an elephant conservation project has been launched by world wide fund for nature India and……

(a) Aditya Birla Group

(b) Muthoot Group

(c) Manapuram Gruop

(d) Reilance Ltd.

75. In February 2015, which Indian Cricket legend has been inducted into the ICC hall of Fame?

(a) Rahul Dravid (b) Anil Kumble (c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Mohd. Azharuddin

76. Lysosomes, which are known as suicide bags, are produced by which organelle?

(a) Mitochondria (b) Golgi body (c) Ribosome (d) Peroxisome

77. Which state is to host the 36th National Games in 2016?

(a) Karnataka (b) Goa (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Telangana

78. Which space agency has successfully launched the world’s first all-electric satellites in march-2015?

(a) Russia Federal Space Agency

(b) China National Space Administration

(c) SpaceX

(d) European Space Agency

79. How much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in country’s defense sector was proposed in the Union Budget 2014-15 presented on 10 July-2014?

(a) 51% (b) 49% (c) 29% (d) 10%

80. The winner of 2015 Malaysian Grand Prix is……….?

(a) Sebstian Vettel

(b) Kimi Raikkonen

(c) Lewis Hamilton

(d) Jenson Button

81. Bhalachandra Nemade who has been selected for the 50th Jnanpith award for 2014, on 6 February 2015, is a famous writer in which language?

(a) Marathi (b) Oriya (c) Malayalam (d) Urdu

82. The ISRO has develop a “Flood hazard Atls” by mapping flood prone and vulnerable areas in which state?

(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra (c) Assam (d) Tripura

83. Match list I with list II and select the best option using the code given below the list:

List-I (Organization/Centres) List-II (Locations)

A. High Altitude Warfare Centre 1. Chennai

B. Indian Air core Training Centre 2. Gulmarg

C. National Defence College 3. New Delhi

D. Institute of National Integration 4. Pune

(a) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4

(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

84. Indian Space Research Organization was recently conferred ‘Space Pioneer Award’ by the National Space Society (NSS) of which country over the historic feat on successfully sending an orbit to Martian at mosphere in its very first attempt?

(a) France (b) European Union (c) China (d) USA

85. Name India’s Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Air-to-Air Missile which was successfully test fired on 19 March 2015 from a Sukhoi-30 fighter aircraft?

(a) Astra (b) K-100 (c) Mitra (d) Tejas

86. Garuda Shakti III is the military exercise between India and which country?

(a) Napal (b) Russia (c) Indonesia (d) China

87. Which of the following is incorrect option?

(a) Within the Arctic and Antarctic Circles there is at least one day in the year during which the sun does not set and at least day on which it never rises.

(b) At the North Pole there is darkness for half the year.

(c) At the summer solstice, the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn.

(d) The sun shines vertically over the Equator twice in the year.

88. Which one of the following are the online grievances monitoring portals launched by union government for Indians living abroad?

(a) Madad

(b) Sankalp

(c) Mythri

(d) Rakshan

89. The Ufa city, where annual BRICS summit-2015 is scheduled to be held is in which country?

(a) China (b) Russia (c) South Africa (d) Brazil

90. The protein CA-125 (Cancer Antigen-125) is used as biomarker for detection of which type of cancer?

(a) Ovarian Cancer (b) Bone Cancer (c) Lung Cancer (d) Oral Cancer

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Section C: Elementary Mathematic (Numerical Ability)  [CLAT 2015 paper]

91. If n2= 12345678987654321, what is n?

(a) 12344321 (b) 1235789 (c) 111111111 (d) 11111111

92. What are the last two ditits of 72008?

(a) 01 (b) 21 (c) 61 (d) 71

93. What is the value of (x) in the following equation?


(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 7

94. In a tournament here are n teams T1, T2……Tn with n>5. Each team consists of k players, k>3. The following pairs of team have one player in common T1 and T2 and T3….., Tn-1 and Tn and Tn2nd T1- No other pair of teams has any player in common. How many players are participating in the tournament, considering all the n team together?

(a) K (n-1) (b) N (k-20) (c) K (n-2) (d) N (K-1)

95. A man has 9 friends: 4 boys and 5 girls, In how many ways can he invite them, if there have to be exactly 3 girls in the invitees?

(a) 320 (b) 160 (c) 80 (d) 200

96. A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% cases, In what percentage of cases are the likely to contradict eact other, narrating same incident?

(a) 5% (b) 15% (c) 35% (d) 45%

97. A die is rolled twice. what is the probability that the sum of the number on the two of the faces is 5?

(a) 3/13 (b) 4/13 (c) 6/13 (d) 1/9

98. The simplified value of [(0.111)3 + (0.222)3 – (0.333)3

(a) 0.999 (b) 0.111 (c) 0 (d) 0.888

99. Along a road lie an odd number of stones placed at intervals of 10 m. These stones have to be assembled around the middle stone. A person can carry only one stone at a time. A man carried out the job starting with the store in the middle, carrying stones in succession, there by covering a distance of 4.8 km. Then, the number of stone is:

(a) 35 (b) 15 (c) 31 (d) 29

100. A group of 360 children is arranged in rows for a group photograph session. Each row contains three fewer children that the row in front of it. What number of rows is not possible?

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

101. If X=(163 + 173 + 183 + 193), then x divided by 70 leaves a remainder of….

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 69 (d) 35

102. When 2 1/2 is added to a number and the sum is multiplied by 4 1/2 and then 3 is added to the product and then the sum is divided by1 1/5, the quotient becomes 25, what is the number?

(a) 2 1/2 (b) 3 1/2 (c) 4 1/2 (d) 5 1/2

103. The sum of all the natural numbers from 200 to 600 (both inclusive) which are neither divisible by 8 nor by 12 is:

(a) 1, 23, 968 (b) 1, 3, 068 (c) 1, 33, 268 (d) 1, 87, 332

104. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes slow at noon on Monday and is 4 minute 48 seconds fast at 2 pm on the following Monday. When was it correct?

(a) 2 p.m. on Tuesday

(b) 2 p.m. on Wednesday

(c) 3 p.m. on Thursday

(d) 1 p.m. on Friday

105. Two trains, one from Howrah to Patna and other from Patna to Howrah, Start simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours respectively. The ratio of their speed is….

(a) 2:03 (b) 4:03 6:07 (d) 9:06

Director for the question: Answer the questions based on the information given in the following table, A, B, C, D, E denotes companies and 2006, 2007, 2008, 2009 and 2010 denote years.

Number of units Manufactured (m) and Number of units Sold (s) (in hundreds) by five different companies over the year.

2006 2.8 1.3 3.3 2.2 2.6 1.7 3.0 2.2 1.9 1.4
2007 3.2 2.0 2.4 1.6 2.2 1.5 2.5 1.9 2.0 1.7
2008 1.9 0.9 2.9 1.6 2.1 1.0 2.3 1.5 1.6 1.1
2009 1.0 0.4 2.4 1.3 2.8 1.4 2.1 1.2 3.2 2.5
2010 2.5 1.5 2.3 1.2 2.6 2.1 1.8 1.1 3.1 2.6

106. What is the respective ratio of total number of units manufactured by Company A and B together in the year 2009 to those sold by them in the same year?

(a) 2:01 (b) 3:02 (c) 5:02 (d) None of the above

107. What is the total number of units manufactured by Company C over all the years together?

(a) 1420 (b) 1030 (c) 1230 (d) 1320

108. The number of units sold by company D in the year 2006 is what percent of the number of units manufactured by it in that year? (Rounded off to two digits decimal)

(a) 52.63 (b) 61.57 (c) 85.15 (d) 73.33

109. What is the average number of units sold by company D over all the years together?

(a) 166 (b) 158 (c) 136 (d) 147

110. What is the approximate percent increase in the number of units sold by company E in the year 2007 from the previous year?

(a) 17 (b) 36 (c) 27 (d) 21

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Section D: Legal Aptitude  [CLAT 2015 paper]

111. The Railway authorities allowed a train to be over-crowded. In consequence, a legitimate passenger, Mr. X got his pcket picked. Choose appropriate answer-

(a) Mr. X can sue the railway authorities for the loss suffered.

(b) Mr. X cannot sue because he had given his consent to travel in over-crowded train.

(c) Mr. X cannot sue the railway authorities because there was no infringement of legal right and mere fact that the loss was caused does not give to a cause of action.

(d) None of the above.

Fill in the blanks: Choose the pair of words which complete the sentence to make logical sense.

112. A bench headed by………………quashed allocation of 214……….as………

(a) Justice HL Dattu, Coad Blocks, illegal and arbitrary

(b) Justice RM Lodha, coal blocks, illegal and arbitrary

(c) Justice TS Thankur, licenses, illegal and arbitrary

(d) None of the above

113. The NDA Led Government notified the………….and the National judicial Appointment Commission ACT, thus ending the over two-decade old…………of appointing judges of supreme court and high courts. Under the new law, a six member panel headed by………. will select judges of the apex court and state high courts.

(a) 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegiums system, the Chief Justice of India

(b) 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the Union law Minister.

(c) 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the prime Minister.

(d) 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, cabinet system, the prime minister.

114. The Union Government on the recommendation of the……….under the chairmanship of…………..has decided to decriminalize section………….of the Indian penal code.

(a) 20th Law Commission, Justice AP Shah & 309

(b) 20th Law Commission, Justice MP Shah & 307

(c) Supreme Court, Justice HL Dattu& Section 309

(d) Planning Commission, Law Minister, section 309

115. The………..Legislative Assembly on 31st March 2015 passed controversial Anti-Terrorism Law, Earlier, the passed bill was rejected two time by the then……….in 2004 and 2008.

(a) Bihar, Presidents

(b) Madhya Pradesh, Governors

(c) Gujarat, Presidents

(d) Maharashtra, Governors

116. Five years’ experience is a must to be able practice as an advocate in the Superme Court of India, This rule was prescribed by the…….

(a) Bar Council of India

(b) Supreme Court of India

(c) High Court of Delhi

(d) Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India

117. India and Britain recently Signed and “extradition treaty” Extradition means-

(a) Exports without double taxation

(b) Order of Indian courts will apply of Indians living in the U.K.

(c) India and the U.K. will deport criminals on reciprocal basis to each other.

(d) None of the above

118. Who administer oath of office to the Governor of a state?

(a) President of India

(b) Chief Justice of High Court of the respective state

(c) Chief Justice of India

(d) Speaker of State Assembly

119. What is a ‘Moot’?

(a) A basic point of law

(b) A basic fact of case

(c) Mock court for practice by student in general

(d) Another name for magistrate’s court

120. Consider the following statement and choose the best option:

1. The Chairman of the national legal services Authority (NALSA) is the chief Justice of India.

2. Chief Justice Mr. Justice H.L. Dattu is the present Chairman of NALSA.

3. The Chairman of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the senior most judge (after CJI) of the supreme court of India.

4. Hon’ble Mr. Justice T.S. Thakur is the present chairman of NALSA.

(a) 1 and 2 are correct

(b) 2 and 3 are correct

(c) 3 and 4 are correct

(d) Non is correct

121. Vote on accounts is meant for……….

(a) Vote on the report of CAG

(b) To meet unforeseen expenditure

(c) Appropriating funds pending passing of budget

(d) Budget

122. Select the correct statement about 14th Finance Commission which submitted its report to president.

1. It covers the period between 1st April 2015 and 31 March 2020

2. The Commission headed by former RBI Governor YV Reddy.

3. Provides for devolution of tax receipts from the centre to the states.

4. Article 280 of Constitution provides for appointment of Finance commission.

5. 1st and 13th Finance Commission was head by KC Neogy &Dr. Vijay Kelkar respectively.

(a) 1, 3 & 5 are correct

(b) 1, 2 & 3 are correct

(c) 1, 3 & 4 are correct

(d) All are correct

123. As per Indian protocol, who among the followings ranks highest in the order of precedence?

(a) Deputy Prime Minister

(b) Former President

(c) Governor of a state within his state

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Direction: The question consists of two statements, on elabeled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) you are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.

124. Assertion:Custom per se law, independent of prior recoginition by the sovereign or the judge.

Reason: Custom is source of law but by itself in not law

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

125. Assertion: In India, every state has High court in its territory.

Reason: The constitution of India provides for a high court in each state.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

126. Assertion: Attempt to commit an offence though does not result in any harm, should also be punished.

Reason: A person, who tries to cause a prohibited harm and fails, is, in terms of moral culpability, not materially different from the person who tries and succeeds.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

127. Assertion: Idol is a person who can hold property.

Reason: Only human being can be called person not the lifeless things.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

128. Assertion: Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January every year in the country.

Reason: The constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

129. Assertion: The Council of Minister at the centre is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and to Rajya Sabha.

Reason: The members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be minister of the Union Government.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

130. Assertion: Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression.

Reason: If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

131. Assertion: Laws are means of achieving an end namely social control.

Reason: The ultimate end of law is to secure greatest happiness to greatest number.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

132. Assertion: The reservation of thirty three percent of seats for women in parliament and State Legislature does not require constitutional Amendment.

Reason: Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

133. Assertion: We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India a Democratic Republic.

Reason: A republic will ensure we have a head to state that is democratically elected and accountable to voters. As a result the head to state will be more effective constitutional safeguard.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A

(b) Both A and R are Individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

134. President of India exercises his powers………….

(a) Either directly of through officers subordinate to him

(b) Through Ministers

(c) Through Prime Minister

(d) Though Cabinet

135. Union Government recently approved 33 percent reservation for Women in:

(a) Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST and others) in direct recruitment in all non-gazetted Police posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.

(b) Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted Police posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.

(c) Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted & non-gazetted Police posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.

(d) Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted & on-gazetted Police posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.

136. Choose the best option for the following statement:

No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since:

1. It will be vocative of the right to freedom of speech and expression.

2. It will be vocative of the right to freedom of conscience and practice & propagation of religion.

3. There is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem.

(a) 1 and 2 are correct

(b) 2 and 3 are correct

(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(d) None is correct

137. Who called Indian Constitution as Quasi-Federal?

(a) Austin (b) K.C.Wheare (c) H.M. Serval (d) Jennings

138. The temporary release of convicted prisoner from jail for a fixed period is called-

(a) Bail (b) Parole (c) Acquittal (d) Discharge

139. Governor of a state can make Laws during recess of state legislative Assembly through…………

(a) Act (b) Bills (c) Notification (d) Ordinance

Direction: Read the definition and elements of the attempt, apply them on the given situations and answer the question:

Definition Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that “there is no doubt that there is difference between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which would ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is Cleary an attempt to commit the crime.”

1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and

2. Conduct Element: Does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because to facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control.

140. ’SINY’ with an intention to pick-pocket his hand into MINU’s pocket, MINU had loaded pistol in his pocket. The thief touches the pistol and trigger goes on, whereby MINU is shot dead.

(a) SINY will be liable only for attempting to pick-pocket and not killing because she cannot be treated differently from all other pick-pockets who steal under exactly similar circumstances and same intention, with no rick of causing death and with not greater care to avoid it.

(b) SINY will be liable for attempting to murder.

(c) SINY will be liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder as his interntion was definitely not to kill

(d) none of the above

141. ‘RANI’ ran to a well stating that she would jump into it, and she started running towards the well but she was caught before she could reach it.

(a) She is not guilty of attempt to commit suicide because shet might have changed her mind before jumping into the well.

(b) She is guilty of attempt to commit suicide.

(c) Right to life includes rights right to die hence a person should not be held responsible for attempt to commit suicide.

(d) None of the above.

142. ‘JAM’ denied food to his wife JANE for several days by keeping her confined in a room with an intention to accelerate here death. JANE ultimately managed to escape.

(a) JAM is guilty for attempt to murder his wife.

(b) JAM is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife as he was only doing preparation

(c) JAM is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife as she always had option to escape.

(d) none of the above

143. Choose the best option for the following statement:

The distinction between fraud and misrepresentation:

1. Fraud is more or less intentional wrong, whereas misrepresentation be quite innocent.

2. In addition to rendering the contract voidable, is a cause of action in tort for damages, Simple misrepresentation is not a tort but a person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled compensation for any damages which he has sustained through the non-fulfillment of the contract.

3. A person complaining of misrepresentation can be met with the defences that he had “the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence” But excepting fraud by silence in other cases of fraud it is no defence that “the plaintiff had the means of discovering the truth by ordinary diligence”.

(a) 1 is correct (b) 1 & 2 are correct (c) 1, 2 & 3 are correct (d) Only 4 is correct

Direction: The question eonsistes of two statements, one labeled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given fact carefully and select the best option.

144. PRINCIPLE: A person in said to be sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect up on his interests.

FACT: Mr. X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract with Mr. When he is of unsound mind, Y came to know about this fact afterwards and now wants to file a suit against Mr. X.

(a) Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into contract.

(b) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract.

(c) Mr. X can enter into a contract but burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract.

(d) None of the above

145. PRINCIPLE: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.

FACT: A horse was bought for a ceratin price coupled with promise to give Rs. 500 more if the horse proved lucky.

(a) This is a valid agreement

(b) This agreements is void for uncertainty because it is very difficult to determine what luck, bad or good, the horse had brought to the buyer.

(c) The agreement is partially valid and partially void.

(d) None of the above

146. PRINCIPLE: A master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the course of employment.

FACT: Sanjay is a driver working in Brooke bond and co. one day, the Manager asked him to drop a customer at the airport and get back at the earliest. On his way back from the airport, he happened to see his fiancé Ruhina waiting for a bus to go home. He offered to drop her at home, which happened to be closed to his office. She got into the car and soon thereafter; the car somersaulted due to the negligence to Sanjay. Ruhina was thrown out of the car suffered multiple injuries. She seeks compensation from Brooke bond and Co.

(a) Brooke bond and Co. shall be liable, because Sanjay was in the course of employment at the time of accident.

(b) Brooke bond and Co. Shall not be liable, Sanjay was not in the course of employment when he took Ruhina inside the car.

(c) Ruhina got into the car at her own risk, and therefore, she cannot sue anybody.

(d) None of the above

147. PRINCIPLE: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal.

FACT: “Ramanuj telegrammed to the Shyamsunder, writing.” will you sell me your Rolls Royce Car? Telegram the lowest cash price “Shyamsunder replied too by telegram: ‘Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 Lacs, asked by you’ Now Shyams under refused to sell the Car.

(a) He cannot refuse to sell the CAR because the contract has already been made.

(b) He can refuse to sell the CAR because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer.

(c) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent.

(d) None of the above

148. PRINCIPLE:Ignorantiajuris not excusat and ingnorntiafacitexcusat.

FACT: George was passenger from Zurich to Manila in Swiss plane. When the plane landed at the airport at Bombay on 28th Nov 1962 it was found on searct that George carried 34 Kgs of gold bars in Person and that he had not declared it in the ‘Manifest for transit’. on 26th Nov.1962 Government of India issued a notification and modified its earliest exemption and now it is necessary that, the gold must the declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.

(a) George cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued only two days ago.

(b) George cannot prosecuted because it is mistake of fact which is excusable.

(c) George’s will be prosecuted because mistake of law is not excusable.

(d) George liability would depend on the discretion of the court.

149. PRINCIPLE: Preparation is not an offence except the preparation some special offences.

FACT: Ramesh keeps poisoned halua in his house, wishing to kill Binoy whom he invited to party and to whom he wishes to give it, Unknown to Ramesh, his only son takes the halua and dies, in this case.

(a) Ramesh is liable for the murder.

(b) He is not liable for murder since it is a preparation alone.

(c) He is liable for culpable homicide

(d) None of the above

150. PRINCIPLE: Nuisance as a tort (Civil wrong) means an unlawful interference with a person’s use of enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it.

FACT: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the defendant’s shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 kg. of onion per ration cart. The queues extended on the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops. The neighbouring shopkeepers brought and action for nuisance against the defendant.

(a) The defendant is liable for nuisance

(b) The defendant was not liable for nuisance

(c) The defendant was liable under the principle of strict liability

(d) The plaintiff’s should be decreed in his favor

151. PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong of contrary of law.

FACT: A takes his son B who is three years old, for a bath to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that he could have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumped in the well to take bath and take his son out of the well. Both were rescused by the villagers but his son was found dead.

(a) A has committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(b) A has committed murder

(c) A has done no offence as he can plead the defence of unsoundness of mind

(d) A’s family should be responsible for this incident to let him to take child to the well.

152. PRINCIPLE: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly and movable property out of the possession on any person without that person’s consent moves that property, such taking is said to commit theft.

FACT: Ramu cuts down a tree on RINKU’s ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of RINKU’s possession without RINKU’s consent. A could not take the tree away.

(a) RAMU can be prosecuted for theft

(b) RAMU cannot be prosecuted for theft

(c) RAMU can be prosecuted for attempt to theft

(d) RAMU has neither committed theft nor attempt to commit theft

153. PRINCIPLE: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid and act or omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbour. The neghbor for this purpose, is any person whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.

FACT: Krishnan, while driving a car at high speed in a crowded road, knocked down a cyclist. The cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around, Lakshmi, a pregnant woman passing by, suffered from a nervous shock, leading to abortion. Lakshmi filed a suit against Krishnan claiming damages.

(a) Krishna will be liable, because he owed a duty of reasonable care to everbody on the road including Lakshmi.

(b) Krishna will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Lakshmi suffering from nervous shock as a result of his act.

(c) Krishna will be liable to Lakshmi because he failed to drive carefully.

(d) None of the above.

154. PRINCIPLE:“Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation.”

FACT: Jeevan and Pavan were neighbours in residential locality. Pavan started a typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan who could not put up with and kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Pavan.

(a) Pavan is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house

(b) Pavan is liable, because as s neighbour, he should have realized Jeevan’s delicate nature.

(c) Pavan is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb a anyone else other than Jeevan.

(d) Pavan is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other thenJeevan.

155. PRINCIPLE: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in its self, equivalent to speech.

FACT: A sells, by auction, to B, a horse, which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the horse’s unsoundness.

(a) A can be held liable for fraud.

(b) A can be held liable for misrepresentation

(c) A cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the soundness of horse.

(d) A cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the things.

156. PRINCIPLE: Injuria sine Damnum i.e. injury without damage.

FACT: SONU, who was returning officer at a polling booth, wrongly refused to register a duly tendered vote of MONU, though he was qualified voter, The candidate, whom MONU sought to vote, was declared elected.

(a) MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to caste vote, which is fundamental right.

(b) MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to caste vote, which is a legal right.

(c) MONU can sue SONU because there is no injury or damage cause to MONU.

(d) MONU cannot sue SONU because to whom SONU he sought to vote was declared elected.

157. PRINCIPLE: Doctrine of Double Jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence twice.

FACT: Maqbool brought some gold into India without making any declaration to Custom Department on the airport. The custom authorities confiscated the gold under the Sea Customs Act. Maqbook was later charged for having committed an offence under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act.

(a) He cannot be prosecuted because it would amount to double jeopardy.

(b) He can be prosecuted because confiscation of good by custom authorities doen not amount to prosecution by the Court.

(c) Maqbool ought to have known that he can be stopped by the custom authorities.

(d) None of the above.

158. PRINCIPLE: Any direct physical interference with the goods in somebody’s possession without lawful justification is called trespass to goods.

FACT: A purchased a car from a person who had no little to it and had send it to a garage for repair. X, believing, wrongly, that the car was his, removed it from the garage.

(a) X can be held responsible for trespass to goods.

(b) X cannot be held responsible for trespass to good as he was under a wrong belief.

(c) X has not committed any wrong.

(d) None of the above.

159. In a recent case a Supreme Court bench comprising of justice Dipak Misra and Justice Parafulla C pant held that the amount of maintenance to be awarded under Section 125 of CrPC cannot be restricted for the ideate period (three months) only as the inherent and fundamental principal behind section 125.

Also, it said that an order under Section 125 CPC can be passed if person, despite having sufficient means, neglects or refuses to maintain the wife.

(a) ShamimaFarooqui v. Shahid Khan

(b) Mogd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum

(c) HamidaBano v. abdulRasheed

(d) Abdul Kadir v. Salima

160. Select the correct statements on Social Justice Bench constituted on social issue

1. Constituted by Supreme Court on 3 December 2014

2. Started operation on 12 December 2014

3. The brainchild of Chief Justice of India H L Dhattu

4. Two-judge bench to be headed by Justice Madan B Lokur

5. The other member is Justice U Lalit

(a) 1, 2 and 5 are correct

(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

(d) All are correct

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Section E: Logical Reasoning  [CLAT 2015 paper]

Direction for the question: In the following question some capital alphabets are written in a row, below them their coding has been given, in the question, a particular word has been coded in a particular manner using codes as given below the capital letters.

You have to understand the pattern of coding and have to answer the question asked subsequently.

u a 2 v b w 3 t 4 x s y 5 z 6 c d 8 7 e r h 9 i p q

161. If FASHION is z64t7w, then position is?

(a) z 6 4 e 4 7 6 c (b) z 6 4 e 4 7 c 6 (c) c 6 7 4 e 4 6 z (d) c 6 7 4 e 4 z 6

162. If DASH is 2a84, than SMASH is?

(a) 7 5 u 7 t (b) e y a 8 4 (c) 8 z q e 3 (d) 8 z q e 4

163. If LONDON is 5c62z5, then EUROPE is?

(a) w h 7 c d w (b) w h 7 z 6 v (c) b r 7 6 c b (d) w h 7 6 c b

Direction for the question: In the following question, a group of numerals is given followed by four groups of symbol/letter combinations lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Numerals are to be coded as per the codes and conditions.

You have to find out which of the combinations (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct and indicate your answer accordingly.

Numerals: 3 5 7 4 2 6 8 1 0 9
Letter/Symbol code: * B E A @ F K % R M

Following conditions apply:

1. If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as ‘X’

2. If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded as ‘$’

3. If the last digit is ‘O’, it is be coded as #.

164. Find out the combination for: 364819?

(a) *FAK%X (b) XFAK&M (c) *FAK%M (d) None of the above

165. Find out the combination for: 765082?

(a) EFB#K@ (b) XFBRK@ (c) EFBRK@ (d) None of the above

166. Find out the combination for: 546839?

(a) XAFK*X (b) XAFK*M (c) BAFK*X (d) None of the above

167. Find out the combination for: 487692?

(a) $KEFM@ (b) AKEFM@ (c) AKFEM@ (d) $KEFM$

168. Find out the combination for: 71354?

(a) X%*BA# (b) E%*BA# (c) E%*BAR (d) None of the above

169. The son of M is the father of N and grandfather (Mother’s Father) of R S in the daughter on N and sister of B. on the basis of this information, how is M related to B?

(a) Grandfather

(b) Grandmother

(c) Grandmother’s Mother

(d) None of the above

170. Amit first goes in South direction, then he turns towards left and travel for some distance. After that he turns right and moves certain distance. At last he turns he left and travels again for some distance. Now, in which direction is he moving?

(a) South (b) West (c) East (d) None of the above

Direction for the question: Read the following information carefully to choose best option for the question:

A. ‘L% M’ means that M is brother of L.

B. ‘L x M’ means that L is Mother of M.

C. ‘L/M’ means that L is the sister of M.

D. ‘L=M’ means that M is father of L.

171. If ‘A$B’ means that A is the father of B, “A*B’ means that A is the month of B, [email protected] means that A is the wife of B, then which of the following means that M is the grandmother of N?

(a) [email protected] (b) [email protected]@N (c) [email protected] (d) [email protected]

172. Which of the following means “I is the nephew of Q?”

1. Q % J=I

2. Q / M X B % I

3. C/I=B % Q

(a) only 3 (b) only 1 (c) only 2 (d) None of the above

173. There are six houses in a row. Mr. Aalekh has Mr. Mishra and Mr. lliyas as neighbours. Mr. Mrityunjay has Mr. Sandeep and Mr. Nayak as neighbours. Mr.Sandeep’s house in not text to Mr. Mishra or Mr. lliyas and Mr. Nayakdoen not live next to Mr. lliyas.

Who are Mr. Mishra’s door neighbours?

(a) Mr. Aalekh and Mr. Mishra

(b) Mr. Aalekh and Mr. lliyas

(c) Mr. Nayak and Mr.Aalekh

(d) None of the above

Direction for the question: Road the following information and choose the best option.

Recently, the answers of the test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The Investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially, the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All other create their answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her “sources”. If the person has two sources, then he/shet compares the answer-keys obtained for both sources. If the key to question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. if the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answer into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.

The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigate agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. This data represents question number.

Name Wrong Answer(s) Blank Answer (s)
A 46 ——
B 96 469025
C 2,756 174690
D 17 ——
E 4,690 ——
F 1,446 9290
G 25 ——
H 4,692 ——
I 27 172690

174. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Introduced the wrong answer to question 27

(b) E introduced the wrong answer to question 46

(c) F introduced wrong answer to question 14

(d) H introduced the wrong answer to question 46

175. Which of the following two groups of people has identical sources?

(I) A, D and G (II) E and H

(a) Only (I) (b) only (II) (c) Neither (I) nor (II) (d) Both (I) and (II)

176. Which of the following must have two sources?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

177. Both G and H were sources to……..

(a) F (b) B (c) A (d) None of the above

178. How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before C could make his answer key?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

179. From the word ‘LAPAROSCOPY’ how many independent meaningful English words can be made without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?

Which of the following must have two sources?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Direction for the question: The question contains two statements numbered I and II.

You have to decide whether the information provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Read the both the statements and give your answer as:

Answer (1) if the information in the statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Answer (2) if the information in the statement Ii alone are Sufficient to answer the questions.

Answer (3) if the information either in the statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions.

Answer (4) if the information even in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions.

180. Do habits make men’s life rigid?

I. It is out of habit that people envy other

II. Men become slave of habits.

(a) Answer 1 (b) Answer 2 (c) Answer 3 (d) Answer 4

181. Does intelligence predict the child’s ability to learn?

I. Intelligence is unaffected by bad teaching or dull home environment.

II. Children from poor home backgrounds do not do well in their school-work.

(a) Answer 1 (b) Answer 2 (c) Answer 3 (d) Answer 4

182. Can a democratic system operate without an effective opposition?

I. The opposition is indispensable.

II. A good politician always learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters.

(a) Answer 1 (b) Answer 2 (c) Answer 3 (d) Answer 4

183. In the word GRAPHOLOGIST, if 1st and 7th letters, 2nd and 9th letters, 3rd letters and 11th letters, 4th and 8th letters and 5th and 12th letters are mutually interchanged then which will be 6th letters from the left of the 10th letter from the left side?

(a) 5 (b) T (c) G (d) None of the above

Direction for the question: Question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the best option, which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.

184. A. traffic congestion Increases carbon monoxide in the environment.

B. Increase in carbon monoxide is hazardous to wealth.

C. Traffic congestion is hazardous to health.

D. Some traffic congestion does not cause increase carbon monoxide.

E. Some traffic congestion is not hazardous to health.

(a) CBA (b) BDE (c) CDE (d) BAC

185. A. MBAs are in great demand.

B. Samrat and Akshita are in great demand.

C. Samrat is in great demand.

D. Akshita is in great demand.

E. Samrat and Akshita are MBA’s.

(a) ABE (b) ECD (c) AEB (d) EBA

186. A. All software companies employ knowledge workers.

B. Infotech employees are knowledge workers.

C. Infotech is a software company.

D. Some software companies employ knowledge workers.

E. Infotech employs only knowledge workers.

(a) ABC (b) ACD (c) CDB (d) ACE

Direction for the question: From the alternatives given below choose the best option that correctly classifies the four sentences as a:

F:FACT: If it relates to a known matter of direct observation, or an existing reality or something known to be true.

J:JUDGEMENT: If is an opinion or estimate or anticipation of common sense or intention.

I: Inference: If is a logical conclusion of deduction about something based on the knowledge of facts.

187. A. If democracy is to survive, the people must develop sense of consumerism.

B. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries.

C. The protected environment in our country is helping the local manufactures.

D. The quality of goods suffers if the manufactures take undue advantage of this.

(a)UFJ (b) JFJI (c) IJJF (d) IFJJ

188. A. The cabinet minister definitely took the wrong step in giving the government contract.

B. Under the circumstances, he had many other alternatives.

C. The prime Minister is embarrassed due to the minister’s decision.

D. If he has put the government in jeopardy, te minister must resign.

(a) JFFI (b) IFJI (c) FFJI (d) IFIJ

189. A. Everyday social life is impossible without interpersonal relationships.

B. The root of many misunderstandings has been cited in poor relations among individuals.

C. Assuming the above to be true, social life will be much better if people understand the importance of good interpersonal relations.

D. A study reveals that interpersonal relations and hence life general can be iimproved with a little effort on the part of individuals.

(a) FJIU (b) JFIF (c) FIFJ (d) IFFJ

190. If Monday falls on 1st October, which day will fall three days after the 20th in that month?

(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Saturday (d) Wednesday

Direction for the question: W, X, Y and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items, X has two chessboards each costing s. 500, and a record player. Z originally had a cycle and Walkman; each cricket bat cost Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y, X have his record player costing Rs. 2000 to Y, Z gets a camera costing Rs. 1500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1000 and the Walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5000. X gave one of his chessbards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his Walkman to W.

191. Who became the gainer by highest amount through exchange?

(a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z

192. Total cost of materials Z had at the beginning was:

(a) Rs. 1500 (b) Rs. 1700 (c) Rs. 1000 (d) Rs. 2000

193. At the beginning who had the costliest items:

(a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z

194. Among the things exchanged, which one faced the highest exchange value in percentage term.

(a) Cricket (b) Record Player (c) Camera (d) cycle

195. The amount of price of all the things remaining with the four persons lie between:

(a) Rs. 800-Rs. 900

(b) Rs. 10000-Rs. 12000

(c) Rs. 9000-Rs. 10000

(d) Rs. 10000-Rs. 11000

196. Who did not have a cricket bat after the exchange of items was over?

(a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z

197. The person incurring the highest amount of financial loss through exchange lost an amount of:

(a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 1000 (c) None (d) Rs. 500

198. Even after exchanges, an item of highest value remained in possession of:

(a) W (b) X (c) Y (d) Z

Direction for the question: The question contains two statements and two conclusions numbered I and II.

You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusion (s) from the two given statements.

Answer (1) if only conclusion I follow.

Answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Answer (3) if neither I nor II follows.

Answer (4) if both I and II follows.

199. Statements:

I. Some vegetables are fruits.

II. No fruit is black.


I. Some fruits are vegetables.

II. No vegetable is black.

(a) Answer (1) (b) Answer (2) (c) Answer (3) (d) Answer (4)

200. Statements:

I. Some players are signers.

II. All signers are tall.


I. Some players are tall.

II. All players are tall.

(a) Answer (1) (b) Answer (2) (c) Answer (3) (d) Answer (4)

CLAT 2015 paper, clat 2015 question paper, clat 2015 solved papers

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CLAT 2015 paper: Answer Key

Section-I English

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23.(a) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (+) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (a) 33.(c) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39 (a) 40. (a)

Section-II General Knowledge

41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (a) 51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63 (c). 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (a) 81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (a)

Section-III Maths

91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100.(d) 101.(a) 102.(b) 103.(c) 104.(b) 105.(b) 106.(a) 107.(c) 108.(d) 109.(b) 110.(d)

Section-IV Legal Aptitude

111.(c) 112.(b) 113.(a) 114.(a) 115.(c) 116.(a) 117.(c) 118.(b) 119.(c) 120.(c) 121.(c) 122.(d) 123.(c) 124.(a) 125.(d) 126.(a) 127.(c) 128.(a) 129.(d) 130.(a) 131.(b) 132.(d) 133.(a) 134.(c) 135.(a) 136.(c) 137.(b) 138.(b) 139.(d) 140.(a) 141.(a) 142.(a) 143.(c) 144.(c) 145.(b) 146.(a) 147.(b) 148.(c) 149.(b) 150.(a) 151.(c) 152.(a) 153.(b) 154.(d) 155.(c) 156.(b) 157.(b) 158.(a) 159.(a) 160.(d)

Section-V Logical Reasoning

161.(a) 162.(c) 163.(d) 164.(a) 165.(c) 166.(a) 167.(d) 168.(b) 169.(d) 170.(c) 171.(c) 172.(c) 173.(c) 174.(c) 175.(c) 176.(b) 177.(d) 178.(c) 179.(b) 180.(b) 181.(d) 182.(c) 183.(d) 184.(+) 185.(+) 186.(b) 187.(b) 188.(a) 189.(b) 190.(b) 191.(d) 192.(b) 193.(a) 194.(d) 195.(d) 196.(b) 197.(c) 198.(a) 199.(a) 200.(a)

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